Chapter 36 — Quiz
26 questions: multiple choice and short answer. The answer key is in the collapsed block at the bottom. Every coefficient, benchmark, and dollar figure is a constructed teaching figure — risk models, mappings, and coefficients are revised annually and the version in force differs by contract year.
1. Under a risk-adjusted capitated arrangement, a health plan's payment for a member is driven primarily by:
- A. The services furnished to that member during the month
- B. The diagnoses documented and reported for that member during the previous year
- C. The member's premium
- D. The number of claims submitted
2. The primary purpose of risk adjustment is to:
- A. Reward organizations for coding completely
- B. Remove the financial incentive to avoid enrolling sick people
- C. Replace fee-for-service payment
- D. Measure quality of care
3. A risk adjustment factor of 1.0 means the member is expected to cost:
- A. One thousand dollars per month
- B. The same as an average member
- C. Nothing, until a service is furnished
- D. The plan's benchmark, exactly
4. Short answer: state the two things a risk model predicts and does not predict, in the form "the model predicts , not ."
5. The word "hierarchical" in hierarchical condition category refers to:
- A. The ranking of plans by size
- B. The ranking of categories within one disease family, so a member is counted once at the most severe
- C. The order in which diagnoses appear on the claim
- D. The seniority of the reviewing coder
6. A chart contains fourteen accurate ICD-10-CM codes and only two map to a condition category. This indicates:
- A. A coding error
- B. A mapping failure in the software
- C. Normal operation — most ICD-10-CM codes map to no category in any risk model
- D. That the encounter was not face-to-face
7. A record reports both diabetes without complications and diabetes with chronic complications for the same member in the same collection year. The model counts:
- A. Both
- B. The average of the two coefficients
- C. One — the more severe
- D. Neither, and flags the record
8. Reporting only the least severe version of a documented condition is:
- A. The conservative and safe choice
- B. Inaccurate, and the hierarchy guarantees it costs, because the model cannot promote a category that was never reached
- C. Required when the coder is uncertain
- D. Acceptable if the claim pays
9. An interaction term in a risk model is:
- A. A code appended to the claim
- B. A modifier
- C. Computed by the model when two underlying conditions are each documented and reported
- D. Assigned by the plan's medical director
10. Compute: a member's demographic component is 0.346 and her surviving disease coefficients are 0.328 and 0.302. There is no interaction. Her RAF is:
- A. 0.630
- B. 0.976
- C. 1.278
- D. 0.674
11. Compute: a member's RAF is 1.28 and the benchmark is \$1,050.00 per member per month. The payment for the year is:
- A. \$1,344.00
- B. \$12,600.00
- C. \$16,128.00
- D. \$13,440.00
12. Under the annual reset, a chronic condition documented in detail last year and not documented this year:
- A. Carries forward automatically for permanent conditions
- B. Is gone for next year's payment
- C. Is carried forward for three years
- D. Triggers a query from the plan
13. Short answer: which year's diagnoses set which year's payment?
14. Which of the following recaptures a chronic condition for the collection year?
- A. An entry on the reviewed problem list
- B. A laboratory result documenting the abnormality
- C. A face-to-face encounter at which a diagnosing provider assesses the condition and states a plan
- D. A medication refill authorized without an encounter
15. G0439 reports:
- A. A subsequent annual wellness visit
- B. A risk adjustment data validation audit
- C. A quality measure numerator
- D. A prolonged service
16. The MEAT criteria stand for:
- A. Monitor, Evaluate, Assess/Address, Treat
- B. Measure, Evaluate, Attest, Transmit
- C. Medicare, Employer, Advantage, TRICARE
- D. Monitor, Escalate, Audit, Track
17. How many of the four MEAT criteria must a note satisfy before a condition is reportable as addressed?
- A. All four
- B. Three
- C. Two
- D. Any one
18. Short answer: MEAT is not a federal regulation. What is the binding authority the mnemonic operationalizes?
19. A note reads "History of CHF." Reporting active chronic heart failure from that phrase is:
- A. Correct, because the condition is chronic
- B. Incorrect — "history of" is read by the classification as a past condition, and inferring an active one is a clinical judgment
- C. Correct if the patient is on a diuretic
- D. Correct only in the inpatient setting
20. The single design feature that separates a legitimate prospective chart review from an improper one is whether the prompt asks the clinician to:
- A. Sign the note
- B. Evaluate rather than affirm
- C. Complete the visit within a time standard
- D. Use the practice's preferred template
21. A retrospective chart review program has reviewed thousands of charts across several years and has never deleted a diagnosis. The most useful description of that program is:
- A. Highly accurate
- B. A one-way ratchet, and the first thing an external reviewer will ask about
- C. Compliant, since deletions are optional
- D. Understaffed
22. CMS's mechanism for auditing the diagnoses submitted for risk adjustment in Medicare Advantage is:
- A. CERT
- B. RADV — risk adjustment data validation
- C. The Outpatient Code Editor
- D. The MS-DRG Definitions Manual
23. CMS's contract-level RADV final rule, published in January 2023, provides that audit findings:
- A. Will not be extrapolated
- B. Will be extrapolated, beginning with payment year 2018, with no fee-for-service adjuster
- C. Apply only to hospitals
- D. Are advisory only
24. CPT Category II codes such as 0001F and 3044F:
- A. Carry relative values and are paid at a reduced rate
- B. Carry no relative value, are not paid, and exist to report quality measures
- C. Replace the ICD-10-CM diagnosis on the claim
- D. Are assigned only in the inpatient setting
25. 3044F reports a hemoglobin A1c below 7.0%. As a measure component, this is:
- A. A process measure — an action taken
- B. An outcome measure — a result achieved
- C. A structural measure
- D. A balancing measure
26. Short answer: in a shared-savings arrangement, why does more complete diagnosis coding usually not manufacture savings the way it raises revenue in a capitated arrangement?