Chapter 4 Self-Check Quiz: The Forensic Laboratory
Twenty-five questions — multiple choice and short answer — to test your grasp of the chapter. Answer before opening the key at the bottom. The short-answer items reward the honest verbs (conformance vs. correctness, necessary vs. sufficient) over slogans.
Multiple choice
1. A "full-service" crime laboratory is best described as: - A) a single room where one analyst performs all forensic tests - B) a facility organized into specialized sections, each with its own analysts, instruments, and standards - C) a database that automatically matches evidence to suspects - D) the office of the medical examiner
2. Accreditation to ISO/IEC 17025 primarily certifies that a laboratory: - A) produces correct results in every case - B) uses only methods that are scientifically valid - C) operates a documented quality-management system and is competent in its declared scope - D) is independent of law enforcement
3. Which statement about an accredited lab is TRUE? - A) Accreditation guarantees the underlying method is foundationally valid - B) An accredited lab can faithfully run a method (e.g., bite-mark comparison) that lacks scientific validity - C) Accreditation makes contamination impossible - D) Every analyst in an accredited lab is incapable of fraud
4. Quality assurance (QA) differs from quality control (QC) in that: - A) QA is the sample-by-sample check; QC is the overarching system - B) QA is the overarching system of policies and training; QC is the sample-by-sample check on a run - C) they are two names for the same activity - D) QA applies only to DNA; QC applies only to drug chemistry
5. A negative control in an analytical run is a sample that: - A) is known to contain the target and must test positive - B) is known to be free of the target and must test negative - C) is the actual evidence under examination - D) is run only after the report is issued
6. The most revealing form of proficiency testing is one that is: - A) declared, so the analyst can prepare - B) blind — introduced into the casework stream disguised as a real case - C) graded by the analyst themselves - D) built only from clean, single-source, easy samples
7. Method validation is best described as: - A) the second analyst's review of a finished report - B) testing a method against samples of known truth, before casework, to characterize its performance and error rate - C) the accreditation assessment performed by an outside body - D) the chain-of-custody log
8. Developmental validation differs from internal validation in that: - A) developmental validation proves a method can work in principle; internal validation proves a given lab can run it correctly - B) internal validation is done once by the method's developer - C) they are the same thing - D) developmental validation is performed on every case
9. Why is high sensitivity a contamination liability? - A) sensitive methods are slower - B) a method that can detect a few cells of a real perpetrator can equally detect a few cells from an analyst or a previous sample - C) sensitive methods cannot use controls - D) it is not a liability
10. A "staff elimination database" exists so that: - A) underperforming staff can be removed - B) a staff member's DNA, if it appears in a result, can be recognized as contamination rather than mistaken for a perpetrator - C) the lab can bill each analyst's time - D) proficiency tests can be graded
11. "Dry-labbing," as in the Annie Dookhan case, means: - A) running tests in a low-humidity room - B) reporting results for tests that were never actually performed - C) drying samples before analysis - D) a validated rapid-screening method
12. The Sonja Farak case primarily involved: - A) reporting tests never run - B) the analyst consuming the drug standards and case samples while continuing casework - C) a contaminated batch of swabs - D) an invalid comparison method
13. Fred Zain's misconduct is best characterized as: - A) an honest analyst applying a method that turned out to be invalid - B) systematic fabrication and misrepresentation of serological results across two states - C) a single isolated clerical error - D) a contamination problem caused by faulty reagents
14. When an analyst is found to have committed systematic fraud, the doubt extends to: - A) only the specific cases where fabrication is individually proven - B) every case the analyst touched, because their overall reliability is destroyed - C) no past cases, only future ones - D) only cases that went to trial
15. The "independence problem" refers to: - A) analysts working alone without a second reviewer - B) most crime labs being housed within, and answerable to, law-enforcement/prosecution agencies - C) labs refusing to share data - D) the lack of accreditation
16. Which is the BEST example of the principle that a lab safeguard is "necessary and insufficient"? - A) a lab with no quality system at all - B) accreditation, which raises the floor on reliability but does not guarantee any specific result is correct - C) a method that has no error rate - D) a contaminated reagent blank
17. A small county lab that lacks a DNA section will most likely: - A) refuse the case - B) refer the complex evidence to a larger state crime laboratory - C) perform DNA analysis anyway, without validation - D) destroy the evidence
18. Which pair of failures requires DIFFERENT fixes, per the chapter? - A) a failed positive control and a failed negative control - B) analyst fraud (fixed by oversight/integrity controls) and invalid method (fixed by validation or abandonment) - C) intake and storage - D) QA and QC
19. Context management in lab workflow means: - A) giving the analyst the full police narrative so they understand the case - B) withholding domain-irrelevant information (like the suspect's identity) that could bias interpretation - C) managing the lab's appointment calendar - D) storing evidence at the correct temperature
20. Why does the Melendez-Diaz right to confront the analyst matter especially in light of the scandals? - A) it speeds up the backlog - B) a report is only as trustworthy as the human who signed it, who should be available to be questioned - C) it makes accreditation unnecessary - D) it eliminates the need for proficiency testing
Short answer
21. In two sentences, explain the difference between what accreditation certifies (conformance) and what a juror might wrongly assume it certifies (correctness).
22. A drug chemist's negative control develops color during a batch. State what should happen to that batch and why, and name the temptation that leads toward misconduct.
23. Give one strength and two limitations of proficiency testing as a measure of an analyst's real-world competence.
24. Explain, using the cold case, how the initial "accidental fire" classification had a second-order effect on the evidence by way of the lab's triage system.
25. State the one-line "what you can honestly say on the stand" about a lab result, given everything in this chapter about accreditation, controls, and independence.