Chapter 7 — Self-Check Quiz
Twenty-five questions: multiple choice and short answer. Answer before opening the key. The answer key is in the collapsed block at the bottom.
Multiple choice
1. Forensic STR typing targets which part of the genome? - A. The protein-coding genes that determine traits like eye color - B. Short tandem repeats in non-coding regions that vary between people - C. The entire genome, sequenced base by base - D. Only the sex chromosomes
2. A locus is best described as: - A. The version of a sequence a person carries - B. A specific, named physical location in the genome that is targeted for typing - C. The instrument that reads DNA fragments - D. The national DNA database
3. An allele is: - A. A specific version (e.g., repeat number) found at a locus - B. A pair of chromosomes - C. A fluorescent dye used in PCR - D. A type of contamination
4. How many alleles does a person carry at a single autosomal STR locus? - A. One - B. Two — one inherited from each biological parent - C. Four - D. It varies from person to person
5. The polymerase chain reaction (PCR) is used in DNA typing to: - A. Sort DNA fragments by size - B. Copy targeted DNA regions exponentially until a trace becomes billions of copies - C. Determine a person's guilt - D. Store profiles in a database
6. In capillary electrophoresis, DNA fragments are separated by: - A. Color only - B. Size, because smaller fragments move through the polymer faster under an electric field - C. The analyst's visual judgment - D. Their guilt-relevance
7. An electropherogram is: - A. The chemical that breaks open cells - B. The visual readout of a profile, plotting fluorescence against fragment size, with alleles as peaks - C. A national database - D. A type of PCR primer
8. Two profiles differ at one locus (evidence (15,16); suspect (14,17)) but match at all others. This is, barring rare exceptions: - A. A match - B. A strong inclusion - C. An exclusion — the suspect is not the source - D. Inconclusive and meaningless
9. A CODIS "hit" is best understood as: - A. Conclusive proof of guilt - B. An investigative lead that must be confirmed by direct re-typing of a fresh reference sample - C. A name and photograph appearing on screen - D. A random match probability
10. The random match probability (RMP) answers which question? - A. Given a matching profile, how likely is the defendant innocent? - B. Given that a random unrelated person is not the source, how likely is it they would coincidentally match the evidence profile? - C. How often does the lab make an error? - D. How long ago was the DNA deposited?
11. The "prosecutor's fallacy" is the error of: - A. Stating the RMP as a fraction - B. Equating "the chance of this profile in a random innocent person" with "the chance the defendant is innocent" - C. Running a negative control - D. Typing too many loci
12. Per-locus match probabilities can be multiplied together to get the profile frequency because: - A. The loci are inherited largely independently of one another - B. Multiplication always makes numbers smaller - C. The database requires it - D. The defendant agreed to it
13. A one-in-a-billion RMP does not account for: - A. The rarity of the profile in the population - B. The number of loci typed - C. Laboratory error and close relatives - D. The fluorescent labels
14. Why is DNA placed at the top of the validity spectrum (NAS 2009 / PCAST 2016)? - A. Because juries trust it - B. Because it has an understood biological basis, a quantified error structure, and an objective core measurement - C. Because it is the oldest forensic method - D. Because it never makes mistakes
15. The transfer problem refers to: - A. Moving samples between labs - B. DNA being deposited at a location where its source was never present (e.g., secondary transfer) - C. Transferring a case to another jurisdiction - D. Converting an electropherogram to a profile
16. A pristine, single-source DNA match establishes, by itself: - A. That the source person is guilty - B. When the DNA was deposited - C. Only that the cells came from that person - D. How the DNA got to the object
17. Historically, the technique Alec Jeffreys first developed (1984) that was later largely replaced because it needed more, intact DNA, was: - A. Capillary electrophoresis - B. RFLP ("DNA fingerprinting") - C. CODIS - D. Touch DNA
18. The first criminal use of DNA evidence (the Pitchfork case) is emblematic because the test first: - A. Convicted the obvious suspect - B. Excluded an innocent suspect before it identified the guilty man - C. Failed entirely - D. Identified the killer from a database
19. Which is an honest expert statement? - A. "There is a one-in-a-billion chance the defendant is innocent." - B. "This profile is found in approximately one in a billion unrelated individuals in the relevant population." - C. "The database identified the defendant as the perpetrator." - D. "The DNA proves he did it."
20. A negative (reagent-blank) control is run primarily to detect: - A. Close relatives - B. Contamination introduced during processing - C. The prosecutor's fallacy - D. Peak height
Short answer
21. In one sentence each, explain why a single clean mismatch can exclude a suspect with near-certainty while a 20-locus match only supports that the suspect is the source.
22. Explain why "every gain in sensitivity comes with a cost" in forensic DNA — what is the cost, and why does it grow as sensitivity increases?
23. A doorknob profile matches a suspect at a one-in-a-trillion RMP. List the three questions §7.6 says the match cannot answer, and state in one sentence why this matters to a verdict.
24. Distinguish the coincidental-match risk from the laboratory-error risk. Which is realistically larger, and why does typing more loci not reduce the second?
25. Why does the chapter call DNA both the forensic yardstick and the instrument that proved the other methods wrong? Connect your answer to the post-conviction exonerations of Chapter 6.