Chapter 11 — Self-Check Quiz
24 questions: multiple choice and short answer. Try them closed-book. The answer key is in the collapsed block at the bottom.
Multiple choice
1. Forensic pathology is best defined as: - A. The study of insects on remains - B. The branch of medicine applying pathology to legal questions, chiefly cause and manner of death - C. The reconstruction of crimes from bloodstains - D. The identification of bodies from dental records
2. The key difference between a medical examiner and a coroner is that a medical examiner is: - A. Always elected, with no medical training required - B. An appointed physician (ideally a board-certified forensic pathologist) - C. A police officer assigned to the morgue - D. A lawyer who certifies deaths
3. The 2009 NAS report recommended that death investigation move toward: - A. The coroner system, because it is locally accountable - B. Eliminating autopsies to reduce cost - C. Medical-examiner systems staffed by board-certified forensic pathologists - D. Leaving each county to decide with no national guidance
4. The cause of death is: - A. The category of circumstances (accident, homicide, etc.) - B. The physiological failure that ends life - C. The disease or injury that initiated the lethal sequence - D. The time the death occurred
5. The manner of death is: - A. A firm physical finding the body announces - B. The category of circumstances — natural, accident, suicide, homicide, or undetermined — and an opinion - C. The same thing as the mechanism - D. Always determinable from the autopsy alone
6. "Exsanguination" is an example of a: - A. Cause of death - B. Manner of death - C. Mechanism of death - D. Postmortem interval
7. Which sequence correctly orders the autopsy so that each phase preserves the next? - A. Internal exam → external exam → history → report - B. History/scene → external exam (collect trace before washing) → internal exam → specimens/ancillary → correlate and report - C. Specimens → report → external exam → internal exam - D. Report → history → internal exam → external exam
8. Livor mortis becomes fixed (no longer blanches or shifts) after roughly: - A. 5 minutes - B. 1 hour - C. 8–12 hours - D. 5 days
9. Fixed lividity on a body surface that is not the lowest surface in the position the body was found suggests: - A. The person died of natural causes - B. The body was moved after death - C. The time of death is exactly known - D. Nothing of forensic value
10. Rigor mortis develops faster when: - A. The environment is cold - B. The environment is warm and/or there was high pre-death exertion - C. The body is large and fatty - D. The person died of blood loss
11. Of the three early postmortem clocks, the most quantifiable is generally: - A. Livor mortis - B. Rigor mortis - C. Algor mortis (cooling) - D. Decomposition
12. A "vital reaction" (bleeding into tissue, inflammation) at the site of an injury indicates the injury was: - A. Inflicted after death - B. Inflicted while the person was alive (antemortem/perimortem) - C. Caused by the fire - D. Self-inflicted
13. A laceration (in pathology) is: - A. A clean cut from a sharp edge - B. A tear in skin/tissue from blunt crushing or splitting force - C. A gunshot entrance wound - D. A bruise
14. On a gunshot wound, stippling (tattooing) around the wound indicates: - A. A distant-range shot - B. An intermediate-range shot (burning/unburned powder grains struck the skin) - C. That the victim was already dead - D. The caliber of the weapon
15. Soot in the deep airways (below the larynx) of a fire victim is strong evidence that the person: - A. Was already dead before the fire - B. Was breathing during the fire (alive when it burned) - C. Was strangled - D. Had a high blood-alcohol level
16. A low or negligible carboxyhemoglobin level in a body recovered from a smoky structure fire indicates the person: - A. Was breathing heavily during the fire - B. Was not breathing during the fire — likely already dead before it - C. Died of carbon-monoxide poisoning - D. Was a non-smoker
17. Why is "dead before the fire" (absent airway soot + low carboxyhemoglobin) a strongly supported conclusion rather than a contested opinion? - A. Because a famous expert says so - B. Because it rests on an explicit respiratory mechanism with largely objective, converging findings - C. Because juries always believe pathologists - D. Because it is the same as a DNA match
18. In a burned body, distinguishing a true perimortem skull fracture from a heat-induced one is: - A. Trivial and always obvious - B. Genuinely difficult (fire can fracture bone) and often referred to forensic anthropology (Chapter 12) - C. Impossible, so the finding is ignored - D. Determined by carboxyhemoglobin
Short answer
19. In two sentences, explain why the manner of death is an opinion while the cause is usually a firmer finding, and why this makes the manner the more cross-examinable of the two.
20. Name the three early postmortem clocks and, for each, state one condition or scene factor that can make its time estimate wrong.
21. Explain, in terms of breathing, why a body that was already dead when a fire started shows neither inhaled deep-airway soot nor elevated carboxyhemoglobin.
22. A pathologist is told "the partner confessed" before the autopsy. State the bias risk and the safeguard (preview of Chapter 31), and name the kind of finding most vulnerable to it.
23. In the cold case, state the two autopsy findings that converge on "dead before the fire," the finding that is deferred to Chapter 12, and the manner-of-death amendment that results.
24. Write one sentence an honest pathologist could say on the stand about the Mill Creek autopsy, and one sentence that would overstate it (e.g., by naming a perpetrator or asserting manner as a hard fact).