Chapter 27 — Quiz
Peptides in Oncology: Hormone-Axis Blockade, Somatostatin Analogs, and Radioligand Therapy
22 questions. Answer all of them before opening the key.
1. Approximately how long have peptide drugs been the standard backbone of androgen deprivation therapy in prostate cancer?
a) Since about 2015 b) Since the mid-1980s c) Since 2005 d) They are not; androgen deprivation uses small molecules
2. A GnRH agonist produces suppression of the axis because:
a) It blocks the GnRH receptor b) It destroys pituitary gonadotroph cells c) Continuous, non-pulsatile receptor stimulation causes desensitization and downregulation d) It is metabolized into an antagonist
3. The "flare" is best described as:
a) An allergic reaction to the peptide b) A contaminant effect from poor manufacturing c) The transient testosterone rise produced by the agonist's own stimulating action, before desensitization takes hold d) An immune response to a foreign protein
4. The flare is clinically managed by:
a) Reducing the depot interval b) Concurrent antiandrogen cover during the surge window c) Switching to a different agonist d) Pretreatment with corticosteroids
5. From the name alone, which of these blocks its receptor rather than stimulating it?
a) Triptorelin b) Sermorelin c) Degarelix d) Tesamorelin
6. Why did GnRH antagonists reach the clinic later than GnRH agonists?
a) The receptor was not identified until the 2000s b) Designing a peptide antagonist was harder than exploiting agonist-induced desensitization, and early candidates had histamine-release problems c) Regulators refused to approve antagonists for cancer d) Antagonists were less effective at suppressing testosterone
7. Relugolix is an oral option for androgen deprivation. Which statement about it is correct?
a) It is a peptide that survives digestion because it is cyclic b) It is a peptide delivered with an absorption-enhancing excipient c) It is a small molecule — a nonpeptide antagonist of the GnRH receptor d) It is a prodrug that becomes a peptide after absorption
8. Octreotide is:
a) An 8-residue cyclic analog of somatostatin containing D-amino acids b) A 14-residue linear copy of native somatostatin c) A monoclonal antibody against the somatostatin receptor d) A 28-residue recombinant protein
9. Which of these is not one of the stabilization strategies used in octreotide?
a) Cyclization via a disulfide bond b) D-amino acid substitution c) Truncation to the active core d) PEGylation of the N-terminus
10. Somatostatin analogs are used in acromegaly because:
a) They stimulate growth hormone release b) They supply, pharmacologically, the axis's own inhibitory brake on GH secretion c) They shrink the pituitary gland directly d) They block the growth hormone receptor in peripheral tissue
11. The claims "somatostatin analogs control carcinoid symptoms" and "somatostatin analogs delay tumor progression" require separate ratings because:
a) They apply to different molecules b) One is supported and the other is not c) They involve different populations and endpoints and were established separately by different trials d) One is an approved indication and the other is illegal to state
12. PROMID and CLARINET are:
a) Two randomized placebo-controlled trials supporting an antiproliferative effect of somatostatin analogs b) Two PRRT trials c) Two prostate cancer trials of GnRH antagonists d) Two observational registries of neuroendocrine tumor patients
13. In peptide receptor radionuclide therapy, the therapeutic agent is:
a) The peptide b) The chelator c) The radionuclide d) The linker
14. The peptide's role in PRRT is best summarized as:
a) A receptor agonist producing an antitumor signal b) A delivery address that determines where the payload ends up c) An immunomodulator d) A protease inhibitor protecting the payload
15. Lutetium-177 is useful in therapy partly because, alongside its therapeutic emissions, it:
a) Has a half-life of several years b) Emits gamma photons that can be imaged, allowing post-treatment verification of delivery c) Crosses the blood-brain barrier d) Is orally bioavailable
16. NETTER-1 enrolled patients with tumors that were:
a) Any grade, any primary site, treatment-naive b) Midgut, well-differentiated, somatostatin-receptor-positive, and progressive on octreotide c) Pancreatic and high-grade d) Selected only by symptom burden
17. NETTER-1's primary endpoint was:
a) Overall survival b) Quality of life c) Progression-free survival d) Objective response rate
18. "Theranostic" refers to:
a) A drug that treats two diseases b) A targeting system that can carry either a diagnostic or a therapeutic radionuclide, allowing the target to be imaged before treatment c) A combination of chemotherapy and radiotherapy d) A companion blood test
19. Which statement about PSMA-targeting ligands is accurate?
a) They are all peptides b) Most clinically important PSMA ligands are small molecules or peptidomimetics, not peptides c) They are monoclonal antibodies d) They are somatostatin analogs
20. Compared with an antibody-drug conjugate, a peptide-drug conjugate typically has:
a) Better tissue penetration, shorter half-life, cheaper manufacture, lower payload capacity b) Worse tissue penetration and longer half-life c) Identical properties at lower cost d) Higher payload capacity and longer half-life
21. According to §27.8, every successful oncology peptide does one of three things. Which is not one of them?
a) Shuts down a hormone axis b) Replaces or mimics an inhibitory hormone c) Delivers something to an address d) Broadly supports and optimizes healthy cellular function
22. Why does the chapter argue that oncology is the field where this pattern is most visible?
a) Oncologists are unusually skeptical of peptides b) Oncology has hard, scheduled endpoints and little tolerance for unfalsifiable claims c) Oncology drugs are cheaper to test d) Oncology approvals are easier to obtain