Chapter 34 Quiz: Confronting Groups, Committees, and Crowds
20 questions. Answer each before revealing the response.
Question 1. Which of the following best describes Zajonc's research on social facilitation?
A) The presence of others always improves performance B) The presence of others always impairs performance C) The presence of others improves well-learned tasks but impairs complex or novel tasks D) The presence of others has no effect on performance unless participants are strangers
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**C) The presence of others improves well-learned tasks but impairs complex or novel tasks** Zajonc found that the presence of others increases arousal, which benefits automatic, well-practiced behavior but impairs performance on tasks requiring complex judgment, novel problem-solving, or assessment of uncertain situations. This is particularly relevant for meetings, which often involve exactly the complex judgment tasks that the presence of an audience impairs.Question 2. "Social loafing" refers to which of the following?
A) People who avoid participating in meetings to avoid conflict B) The tendency for individuals to exert less effort in group settings than they would working alone C) The social pressure to agree with the group even when you privately disagree D) The phenomenon where groups make riskier decisions than individuals would
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**B) The tendency for individuals to exert less effort in group settings than they would working alone** Social loafing describes the reduced individual effort that occurs in group contexts, first documented by Ringelmann in physical tasks and later replicated in cognitive ones. In meeting settings, it manifests as the "someone else will say it" error — which often results in no one saying it.Question 3. In Asch's conformity experiments, approximately what percentage of trials involved conforming responses (i.e., participants giving obviously wrong answers to match the group)?
A) About 5% B) About 20% C) About 37% D) About 75%
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**C) About 37%** The average conformity rate across trials was approximately 37%. While 75% of participants conformed at least once, the average across all trials was 37%. Post-trial interviews revealed that conformity operated at both social and epistemic levels: participants were not simply lying to fit in — many had genuinely become uncertain about their own perceptions.Question 4. The "illusion of unanimity" is a symptom of groupthink that refers to:
A) The belief that the group's decision is morally correct B) The tendency for individual members to protect the group from outside information C) The misreading of self-censored silence as genuine agreement D) The exaggerated optimism that leads groups to underestimate risks
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**C) The misreading of self-censored silence as genuine agreement** When group members with doubts or concerns withhold them (self-censorship), the resulting silence is taken by both the leader and other members as genuine unanimity. The apparent consensus is an artifact of suppressed dissent, not a reflection of actual agreement. This is especially dangerous because it reinforces the mistaken belief that the decision is widely supported.Question 5. The "early-bird strategy" for speaking up in meetings is based on which psychological principle?
A) People are more receptive to new information at the beginning of a meeting before their attention declines B) Conformity pressure builds over the course of a discussion, so speaking early reduces the social cost and epistemic pressure of dissent C) Chairs give more weight to concerns raised before the formal discussion begins D) The first speaker in a meeting sets the agenda and controls the direction of the discussion
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**B) Conformity pressure builds over the course of a discussion, so speaking early reduces the social cost and epistemic pressure of dissent** The early-bird strategy is explicitly based on the dynamics of conformity pressure: the social cost of dissent rises as the group converges on a consensus, and the epistemic pressure ("everyone else thinks X, so maybe X is right") increases with apparent unanimity. Speaking before the consensus forms avoids both pressures in their full strength.Question 6. Which of the following is NOT identified as a symptom of groupthink by Janis?
A) Collective rationalization B) Pressure on dissenters C) Self-appointed mindguards D) Competitive task assignment
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**D) Competitive task assignment** Janis's eight symptoms are: illusion of invulnerability, collective rationalization, belief in the morality of the group, stereotyped views of out-groups, pressure on dissenters, self-censorship, illusion of unanimity, and self-appointed mindguards. "Competitive task assignment" is not among them.Question 7. What is a "self-appointed mindguard" in the context of groupthink?
A) A formal role in which one person is designated to protect the group's decision-making process B) A group member who independently takes on the role of shielding the group from information or perspectives that might challenge its direction C) A person who assigns themselves the role of maintaining order and preventing emotional conflict D) A member who reviews the group's reasoning process after a decision has been made
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**B) A group member who independently takes on the role of shielding the group from information or perspectives that might challenge its direction** Self-appointed mindguards are members who, without formal assignment, take it upon themselves to suppress or filter information that might disturb the group's emerging consensus. They may do this by failing to pass on concerns they hear from outside the group, by dismissing outside information before it can be fully considered, or by socially signaling to potential dissenters that their concerns will not be welcome.Question 8. In the anatomy of a public objection described in this chapter, what is the recommended first step?
A) Clearly state your opposing position B) Ask the chair to pause the discussion before the vote C) Signal genuine engagement with what has been proposed D) Request data or evidence to support the proposal before it is adopted
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**C) Signal genuine engagement with what has been proposed** Before the objection, demonstrate that you have engaged with the proposal: "I've read through this, and I can see the logic of [X]..." This is not preamble or flattery; it establishes that your objection comes from someone who understands and has genuinely considered the proposal. It reduces the likelihood that your objection will be received as reflexive opposition.Question 9. The chapter describes asking questions rather than making direct arguments as a technique for raising concerns in group settings. What is the primary rationale?
A) Questions are less likely to be recorded in the meeting minutes B) Questions are genuinely more curious and demonstrate intellectual openness C) Questions are harder to defend against because they invite the group to think together rather than evaluate whether the questioner is wrong D) Questions allow the chair to redirect the conversation without attributing the concern to a specific person
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**C) Questions are harder to defend against because they invite the group to think together rather than evaluate whether the questioner is wrong** A direct assertion of a contrary position triggers the group's defense of its emerging consensus. A question — particularly a genuinely curious one — invites the group to explore territory it hasn't fully considered. The chapter emphasizes that this requires genuine questions, not rhetorical ones, because performative questions produce the same defensive response as direct assertions.Question 10. The chapter describes Priya's use of an information request as a "strong move" in her public objection. Why?
A) It signals to the committee that she will pursue a formal complaint if data is not provided B) It accepts the frame that data matters while refusing to accept Harmon's assertion that the data already supports his position, and it is nearly impossible to deny in a committee setting without appearing to have something to hide C) It delays the decision and gives Priya time to build alliances before the next meeting D) It reframes the debate as a technical question rather than a political one
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**B) It accepts the frame that data matters while refusing to accept Harmon's assertion that the data already supports his position, and it is nearly impossible to deny in a committee setting without appearing to have something to hide** When Harmon deploys expertise framing ("our data doesn't support this"), Priya requests the actual data. She does not accept his assertion that the data is settled. She accepts the premise that data should drive the decision, then asks for the data. Refusing this request in a committee setting would look suspicious; agreeing to it requires Harmon to produce evidence that Priya will then be able to evaluate.Question 11. What is the "Abilene Paradox"?
A) The tendency for groups to escalate commitment to a failing course of action B) The phenomenon where a group travels to or pursues an outcome that no individual member actually wants, due to miscommunication about preferences C) The paradox that increases in group size decrease decision quality D) The tendency for public consensus to silence private disagreement even after the decision has been made
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**B) The phenomenon where a group travels to or pursues an outcome that no individual member actually wants, due to miscommunication about preferences** Jerry Harvey's Abilene Paradox describes a family that drives to Abilene in unpleasant conditions despite each member privately preferring not to go — each assumed the others wanted to go and went along to avoid conflict. The paradox reveals that groups can collectively make choices that no member individually endorses when no one is willing to state their actual preference.Question 12. What is "diffusion of responsibility," and how does it affect meeting participation?
A) The way responsibility for a decision is shared across all members of a group, which increases individual ownership B) The tendency for individuals to feel less personal responsibility for raising concerns or taking action when others are present who could also do so C) The formal process by which organizations distribute accountability across different roles D) The reduction in individual credit that occurs when group work is attributed to the team rather than specific contributors
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**B) The tendency for individuals to feel less personal responsibility for raising concerns or taking action when others are present who could also do so** Diffusion of responsibility (studied by Latané and Darley in the bystander effect research) produces the "someone else will say it" dynamic in meetings. When responsibility is shared by everyone, no one feels individually accountable enough to act. Effective meeting design counters this by explicitly assigning specific responsibilities (note-taker, devil's advocate, etc.) to named individuals.Question 13. The chapter describes the "complainer dynamic" in teams. Which of the following best characterizes this dynamic?
A) A team member who raises concerns publicly rather than privately B) A team member who repeatedly brings concerns to the manager rather than addressing them directly with the colleague involved C) A manager who is overly critical of team member performance in meetings D) The tendency for teams to externalize blame for failures rather than examining internal causes
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**B) A team member who repeatedly brings concerns to the manager rather than addressing them directly with the colleague involved** The complainer dynamic routes team conflict through the manager, who becomes an arbiter rather than a facilitator. This prevents the team from developing conflict resolution capacity, keeps the manager overloaded, and leaves the conflict unresolved — it simply goes underground between interventions. The chapter argues that the manager's response should build the team's direct-conversation capacity rather than adjudicate the dispute.Question 14. Sam's approach to team conflict in Section 34.5 emphasizes "distributed accountability." Which of the following best describes what this means?
A) Dividing the team into subgroups that each own part of the conflict resolution process B) Assigning formal conflict resolution roles to specific team members C) The team as a whole taking ownership of its conflict, with the manager serving as facilitator rather than judge D) Distributing feedback and accountability equally across all team members regardless of individual responsibility
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**C) The team as a whole taking ownership of its conflict, with the manager serving as facilitator rather than judge** Distributed accountability in team conflict means the team engages the conflict together rather than routing it through the manager for adjudication. Sam's role is to create the conditions (naming the conflict, establishing a process, naming the shared goal) for the team to work through the disagreement itself. This builds long-term capacity rather than producing single-episode resolutions.Question 15. After Priya raises her public objection in the committee meeting, she holds her position through the first wave of pushback. What does the chapter say distinguishes "holding your position" from "being stubborn"?
A) Holding a position means refusing to change; being stubborn means refusing to listen B) Holding a position means requiring a real argument to be persuaded, not just social pressure; it does not mean refusing to be genuinely persuaded C) Holding a position is appropriate only when you have more expertise than others in the room D) Holding a position is distinguished by how long you maintain it — anything past two pushbacks is stubbornness
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**B) Holding a position means requiring a real argument to be persuaded, not just social pressure; it does not mean refusing to be genuinely persuaded** The chapter explicitly says: "You can ultimately be persuaded, but it should take a real argument, not just social pressure." Holding a position means saying "I hear that" and then returning to your concern — not dismissing the response, but not treating a reassertion of the group's preference as a sufficient reason to drop a well-grounded concern.Question 16. Why does the chapter recommend assigning named roles (such as the devil's advocate) rather than relying on spontaneous dissent?
A) Named roles are required by most organizational governance standards B) Named roles change the social dynamics: the designated skeptic performs an assigned function rather than being an individual dissenting from the group, which makes challenges expected rather than socially costly C) Named roles ensure that different perspectives are always represented without requiring any individual to take personal risk D) Named roles document that alternative views were considered, which provides legal protection for the organization
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**B) Named roles change the social dynamics: the designated skeptic performs an assigned function rather than being an individual dissenting from the group, which makes challenges expected rather than socially costly** The social dynamics of conformity pressure change significantly when dissent is institutionalized. When everyone expects a named person to raise challenges, those challenges are not received as disloyalty or personal opposition but as fulfillment of a useful function. The chapter recommends rotating the role to prevent one person from becoming coded as the chronic complainer.Question 17. The chapter argues that groups performing complex judgment tasks face a problem that individual performers do not face in the same way. What is that problem?
A) Groups are slowed by decision-making processes that individuals can bypass B) Groups have trouble maintaining focus on the task when interpersonal dynamics are present C) The presence of others impairs complex judgment (per social facilitation research), meaning groups are systematically worse at the complex tasks they are often convened to do D) Groups are susceptible to extreme positions because members try to outdo each other
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**C) The presence of others impairs complex judgment (per social facilitation research), meaning groups are systematically worse at the complex tasks they are often convened to do** This is the paradox of social facilitation applied to meetings: complex, ambiguous, judgment-requiring tasks are precisely what meetings are often called to address — and these are exactly the tasks that are impaired by the presence of others. Groups are not well-suited for the tasks they are most often assigned.Question 18. What does it mean for conformity pressure to operate at an "epistemic" level?
A) Conformity pressure causes people to change their public statements without changing their private views B) Conformity pressure shapes what people believe they know — creating genuine uncertainty about their own perceptions when the group sees things differently C) Conformity pressure is driven by fear of punishment rather than by social pressure D) Conformity pressure operates through arguments and evidence rather than through social cues
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**B) Conformity pressure shapes what people believe they know — creating genuine uncertainty about their own perceptions when the group sees things differently** Asch's post-trial interviews revealed that conforming participants were not simply lying to fit in. Many had genuinely become uncertain about whether their perception was correct. When seven intelligent people in a room seem to see something differently, the lone dissenter faces not just social pressure but the genuine, honest question: "Maybe I'm the one who's wrong." This epistemic dimension is why conformity is so powerful and so hard to resist.Question 19. In Sam's team conflict protocol (Section 34.5), what comes immediately after "establishing a process" and "naming the shared goal"?
A) Making a decision B) Giving each party uninterrupted airtime C) Asking the manager to adjudicate D) Distributing the conflict resolution tasks to individual team members
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**B) Giving each party uninterrupted airtime** The sequence in Sam's protocol is: (1) Name the conflict openly, (2) Establish a process before conversation, (3) Name the shared goal, (4) Give each party uninterrupted airtime, (5) Invite the group to respond, (6) Identify points of agreement and genuine disagreement, (7) Make a team decision if appropriate. Active, equal listening comes before broader group response.Question 20. What is the most accurate statement of the chapter's overall argument about group settings and confrontation?
A) Group settings are too psychologically complex for most people to navigate effectively; the best approach is to raise concerns in writing rather than in meetings B) Group dynamics systematically suppress honest individual expression, but specific structural and individual strategies can interrupt these dynamics and make honest group conversation possible C) The key to effective group confrontation is courage — if people are willing to speak up, the group dynamics are manageable D) Formal meeting structures (agendas, roles, rules) are the primary solution to groupthink and conformity pressure